In this third installment of our class based on How to Read the Bible for All Its Worth, we advanced the idea that the author’s intent is of primary importance when looking into the meaning and implications of the biblical text.
We also established some definitions for some key words that will let us discuss biblical texts with precision.
Finally, I offered a brief thumbnail sketch of the history of thought with regard to truth and meaning, noting that objective truth and meaning have come under attack more and more through the centuries. We discussed how this means we have to be discerning as to the meaning of the biblical text for our own obedience, and we also have to stand our ground on the fact that the Bible is our ultimate authority in the face of a postmodern world that has all but discarded it.
Next week (February 11), Eric Farr will address the role of the Holy Spirit in interpreting the Bible.
I’m not sure if this is the appropriate place to post this question, but it is a specific example of wrestling with “author’s intent”. On p.24 in “How to Read The Bible for All Its Worth” the author gives an example of how someone in his life improperly ‘exegeted’ (a word?) 1Thess 5:22 and presented it to him as a challenge. The author points out that 1Thes 5:22 is in context “Paul’s final word in a paragraph to the Thessalonians regarding charismatic utterences in the community” (prophecies to be specific). I found his discussion of the contextual meaning of this verse very helpful as I realize that I have also improperly used this verse outside of this context in the past. But I wonder if he overstates the improperness of the application of the verse. I understand prophesy to be defined as speaking words from God and Biblical teaching or proclamation is a form of prophesy. If the teaching at that conference in question was not in line with Biblical truth, would it be such an improper application of 1Thes 5:22 to challenge the author not to participate in spreading non-Biblical teaching (“Abstain from every form of evil (prophecies)”)?
Jeff, this is a great place to raise such a question.
I, too, think that our authors made a good point. But, like you, I’m not sure I’m entirely happy with the way they did it.
The real problem in 1 Thes 5:22 stems from the unfortunate choice of words that the KJV translators used. There the text reads “Abstain from all appearance of evil,” which leads the reader to believe that Paul is telling us to avoid situations that may appear to be evil even though they are not. A better translation would be to “avoid evil when it appears,” and most modern translations have fixed this.
Now, on the question of whether or not verse 22 applies specifically (and only) to the prophecies introduced in verse 20 in another question. We’ll have to look at the whole flow of thought of 5:12-5:22. I’ll address that later, unless someone beats me to it.